Section 7.3 Worksheet:
Assigned problems: Exercises pp. 364-366, #4, 9, 10, 11, 14, 19, 21, 22, 28,
32, 51, 60, 64, 79, 85, 103.
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Why is an antiderivative of 1/x equal to , rather than simply
?
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How can you use the fact that the natural log ( ) is the inverse
function of to find the derivative of the log function, ?
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Why would one want to use logarithmic differentiation? What advantage (if any!)
does it offer?
Notes:
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Interesting (and mysterious) connection: the derivative of a log is a rational
function! This is the ``missing power'': the power rule works for all exponents
but -1. An antiderivative of is for all r but r=-1.
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Again, no need to worry about bases for logarithms other than base e, since
it's easy to change from one to another. Are you able to show how?
Tue Nov 27 01:03:35 EST 2007