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\(P(1) \land (\forall k)(P(k) \rightarrow P(k+1)) \rightarrow (\forall k)P(k)\)
The 2nd Principle of mathematical induction is like
this:
if every domino up to the kth domino
falls, then the (k+1)th domino falls; and since the
first domino falls, they must all fall down.
Not much difference, is there? They're logically equivalent.
n | nth odd |
1 | 1 |
2 | 3 |
3 | 5 |
4 | 7 |
5 | 9 |
Many of you made use of summation notation to express this, and so the assertion \(P(n)\) would look like this: \[ P(n):\ \ \sum_{i=1}^{n}(2i-1)=n^2 \] Note that the stuff "inside" the summation is a function of \(i\) (not \(n\)), and that \[ \sum_{i=1}^{n}(2i-1)= 1+ 3 + 5 + \ldots + (2n-1) \] and not \[ 1+ 3 + 5 + \ldots + n \] as some mistakenly wrote. The last entry is the \(n^{th}\) odd, not \(n\) itself.
Notice that both \(r \lt m\) and \(m \lt n\), so the problem is "smaller"; ultimately \(r=0\). At that point, the current value of \(m\) is the gcd.
The Euclidean algorithm is ancient (predating Fibonacci by over a thousand years), and yet it has a fundamental connection to the Fibonacci numbers, which we shall see.
When it comes time, we'll use some graph paper, in order to better understand
This graph tells the story, and we'll get to it in a bit:
This has to do with how many searches you need to do before it becomes more useful to sort your list with a mergesort and binary search, rather than to simply sequential search.