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An example from our author's TEC animations.
The slopes in those directions are given by $f_x(a,b)$ and $f_y(a,b)$ as you set off from point the $(a,b)$.
If you take a one-unit step in either of those directions, the $z$-value would rise by either slope: \[ T(x,y)=f(a,b)+f_x(a,b)(x-a)+f_y(a,b)(y-b) \] If you take partial derivatives of $T$ at $(a,b)$, you will see that the partials (and the function value) agree with those of $f$ there.
To prevent problems, we introduce the following definition:
If $z=f(x,y)$, then $f$ is differentiable at $(a,b)$ if the increment $\Delta z$, which is the actual change in function values between the two points \[ \Delta z = f(a+\Delta x,b+\Delta y) - f(a,b) \] can be expressed in functional form as \[ \Delta z = f_x(a,b)(x-a) + f_y(a,b)(y-a) + \epsilon_1 \Delta x + \epsilon_2 \Delta y \] or \[ \Delta z = f_x(a,b)\Delta x + f_y(a,b)\Delta y + \epsilon_1 \Delta x + \epsilon_2 \Delta y \] where $\epsilon_1$ and $\epsilon_2 \to 0$ as $(\Delta x, \Delta y) \to (0,0)$.
We can generally avoid using this definition, however, because of Theorem 8, p. 942:
Existence and continuity of partials $f_x$ and $f_y$ are sufficient to imply differentiability.
That is, we can just check partials in two directions (but we require continuity of the partials for the function to be differentiable).
For a function $z=f(x,y)$, we define the differentials $dx$ and $dy$ to be independent variables; that is, they can be given any values. Then the differential $dz$, the total differential, is defined by \[ dz=f_x(x,y)dx + f_y(x,y)dy \] Differentials give us approximate changes to a function in the neighborhood of a point, generally when $dx$ and $dy$ are small, obtained by following along the tangent plane.
$\Delta{z}$ gives the actual change, so \[ \Delta{z}\approx dz=f_x(x,y)dx + f_y(x,y)dy \] The picture at the end of the section summarizes the situation nicely:
The proof of this is actually easy to follow, and illustrates the use of the definition of differentiability. Let's take a look at it (p. 948).
For those of you in discrete math, why might we prefer a graph to a tree (e.g.
\[ \frac{\partial z}{\partial t}=\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}\frac{\partial x}{\partial t}+\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\frac{\partial y}{\partial t} \]
and symmetrically for $\frac{\partial z}{\partial s}$.
And of course we can do this for functions of any number of independent variables (the "General version", p. 951).
Applying the chain rule, we get \[ \frac{dy}{dx}=-\frac{F_x}{F_y} \]
Let's have a look at page 953, and think about the conditions under which we can do this (the Implicit Function Theorem). Why do they make sense, given our discussion of differentiability from last time?
Think about the linearization....