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I hope that you enjoyed some break in your "Spring Break". This is that time when I personally need a little revitalization; and a week off usually does it. I'm not sure that a "long weekend" is going to have the same effect.
Time to power through, people.
I do have to get the midterm grades in by tomorrow. I'm always one of the last, because I'm trying to get every grade possible in so that I can give my most honest assessment. So you'll have those by tomorrow morning (Tuesday). I try to err on the realistic side....
Here's a key.
A few comments:
There are two kinds of convergence/divergence at work here. One is convergence of integrals, and we compare integrals to integrals. In order for an integral to converge, it will be necessary for an integrand to converge, too.
When comparing integrals, each result only has one "working side". For now, assume all functions are positive. If $f(x)\ge g(x)$ everywhere, and \[ A=\int_a^b f(x) dx \]
converges, then so must \[ B=\int_a^b g(x) dx \]
But if $A$ diverges, then we can't say anything about $B$ -- since $B$ may be small enough to converge (or it may diverge; we don't know yet!).
On the other hand, if $f(x)\le g(x)$ everywhere, and \[ A=\int_a^b f(x) dx \]
diverges, then so must \[ B=\int_a^b g(x) dx \]
But if $A$ converges, then we can't say anything about $B$ -- since $B$ may be small enough to converge (or it may diverge; we don't know yet!).
However I put that example in there so that you could test your work. Having a known value and solution is sometimes helpful, and encouraging if you're wondering if you're doing something correctly....
One of the interesting things I wanted to point out here is that we can turn an integral with an infinite domain (the $u$ integral) into one with a finite domain (the $x$ integral); and we know how to use the midpoint rule to approximate the finite domained one.
So this is a trick to allow us to compute numerical approximations of the infinite domained improper integrals: turn them into finite-domained ones, via some transformation (in this case $u=\ln(x)$).
A lot of folks struggled with that request. I simply wanted you to write \[ p(x)=10^{stuff} \] as \[ p(x)=\left(e^{\ln(10)}\right)^{stuff}=e^{\ln(10)stuff} \]
In calculus class we prefer to use base-e....
Now we do something cruel and unusual: we've just introduced you to these improper integrals, and now we're going to use them as tools to study infinite series.
So you're kind of confronting two somewhat unfamiliar animals simultaneously. What ties them together is this idea of running off to infinity, and trying to figure out how to successfully add up an infinite amount of things.
Great thought experiments, but perhaps intellectually troubling. That's perhaps why calculus is difficult: there are lots of intellectually troubling things going on. You don't want to turn it into abstract nonsense, however. If you have any questions, please pop by for an office hour!